Maybe I'm just being politically naiive, which is very possible, but over the water in England there seem to be a number of editorials in this vein. My question is; who started shooting at the South Ossetian civilians first? This is a multi choice question:
(*Correct answer is a)
All the comparisons with the Gleiwitz incident in 1939 ring pretty hollow to me. Just who is trying to whip up a cassus belli here? More to the point, why?